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       #Post#: 18--------------------------------------------------
       Lecture 6, Part I (Game theory)
   DIR By: ecplgq
       Date: November 19, 2012, 5:50 am
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       Hi,
       I had a minor clarification points from the first set of lecture
       notes on Game theory which I was hoping one of you could help me
       figure out?
       1) [Part I, slides 12-15] EX –why does P(1) = 0 and not 1? (Is
       it because looking at it in terms of probability of getting
       number 1 when opponent does not?)
       Thanks
       #Post#: 19--------------------------------------------------
       Re: Lecture 6, Part I (Game theory)
   DIR By: Julia.Wirtz
       Date: November 19, 2012, 1:03 pm
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       Hi,
       I'm really sorry, but I can't see what you are referring to in
       the slides. You mean the example on dominance, right? It
       compares 2 possible strategies for player 1 (row player)
       1. play T with probability 1/2, play M with probability 1/2
       2. always play B
       Then the payoffs of both strategies are compared for the actions
       of player 2 (column player)
       a) if P2 plays L: strategy 1 gives expected payoff 3/2, strategy
       2 gives 1 -> strategy 1 is better
       b)if P2 plays L: strategy 1 gives 3/2, expected payoff  strategy
       2 gives 1 -> strategy 1 is better
       => strategy 1 is ALWAYS better ==> strategy 1 DOMINATES strategy
       2
       I hope this helps
       #Post#: 36--------------------------------------------------
       Re: Lecture 6, Part I (Game theory)
   DIR By: laura.sochat
       Date: December 2, 2012, 10:53 am
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       Hey!
       I had the same question so went to ask Abhinay about it and it
       is indeed 1 and not 0 :)
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