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       #Post#: 2--------------------------------------------------
       Q1(a)
   DIR By: Francesco_Longo
       Date: October 22, 2012, 11:20 am
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       Hi,
       I'd like to ask if the way I've used to demonstrate that A2
       holds in case of strict preference is ok or not. Similarly to
       the indifference case I exploited the definition of strict
       preference:
       if x R y and NOT y R x -> x P y
       so:
       if y R z and NOT z R y -> y P z
       then:
       if x R y and y R z -> x R z
       and
       if NOT y R x and NOT z R y -> NOT z R x
       hence:
       if x R z and  NOT z R x -> x P z
       Is this plausible?
       Thanks
       #Post#: 3--------------------------------------------------
       Re: Q1(a)
   DIR By: Ariel_Li
       Date: October 22, 2012, 3:32 pm
       ---------------------------------------------------------
       I have the exactly the same proof! I think it is okay overall.
       But I am not sure about the part "if NOT y R x and NOT z R y ->
       NOT z R x". See, it's not a converse-negative proposition of
       transitivity. It's logically right, but... not based on a
       certain theory...
       #Post#: 4--------------------------------------------------
       Re: Q1(a)
   DIR By: Francesco_Longo
       Date: October 23, 2012, 12:49 am
       ---------------------------------------------------------
       --- Quote from: Ariel_Li link ---
       >
       > I have the exactly the same proof! I think it is okay overall.
       But I am not sure about the part "if NOT y R x and NOT z R y ->
       NOT z R x". See, it's not a converse-negative proposition of
       transitivity. It's logically right, but... not based on a
       certain theory...
       >
       --- End Quote ---
       From my point of view (but I'm not 100% sure) we're still
       talking about transitivity, because it should hlod for the
       negative reasoning  as well. It would be the same of saying, you
       can do this :
       a>=b and b>=c -> a>=c
       and this too:
       a<b and b<c -> a<c
       #Post#: 5--------------------------------------------------
       Re: Q1(a)
   DIR By: Julia.Wirtz
       Date: October 23, 2012, 5:51 am
       ---------------------------------------------------------
       I would say this is not strictly correct.
       "If A then B" is not logically equivalent to "if not A then not
       B"
       On the other hand, "If A then B" is indeed logically equivalent
       to "if not B then not A"
       Example:
       "If it rains, the street gets wet".
       You cannot logically conclude: "If it doesn't rain, the street
       doesn't get wet." (The street could get wet because I washed my
       bike or something)
       But you can conclude: "If the street is not wet, it doesn't
       rain."
       I hope this makes sense.
       You can only make the reverse inference for "if and only if"
       statements.
       #Post#: 6--------------------------------------------------
       Re: Q1(a)
   DIR By: Francesco_Longo
       Date: October 23, 2012, 6:10 am
       ---------------------------------------------------------
       --- Quote from: Julia.Wirtz link ---
       >
       > I would say this is not strictly correct.
       >
       > "If A then B" is not logically equivalent to "if not A then
       not B"
       >
       >
       > On the other hand, "If A then B" is indeed logically
       equivalent to "if not B then not A"
       >
       > Example:
       > "If it rains, the street gets wet".
       > You cannot logically conclude: "If it doesn't rain, the street
       doesn't get wet." (The street could get wet because I washed my
       bike or something)
       > But you can conclude: "If the street is not wet, it doesn't
       rain."
       >
       > I hope this makes sense.
       >
       > You can only make the reverse inference for "if and only if"
       statements.
       >
       --- End Quote ---
       Thanks for your reply. The example is very clear, but can you
       help me to apply it to this specific case?
       Just to be sure, the statement "if NOT y R x and NOT z R y ->
       NOT z R x" is not (completely) logically correct, is it?
       Thanks
       #Post#: 7--------------------------------------------------
       Re: Q1(a)
   DIR By: Julia.Wirtz
       Date: October 23, 2012, 11:53 am
       ---------------------------------------------------------
       Yes, I think it is not logically correct. I would say a proof by
       contradiction as in Ben's model solution is easier than a
       constructive proof here.
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